I've been asked to show that if a manipular is at a singular configuration, then the End Effector wrench can be balanced without any joint torques.
I know that t = J*F where (t = torques, F= end effector forces, J is the Jacobian). Hence F = (pinv(J))*t. Hence, if J is singular, then we cannot invert it and find F, as the inverse of J is effectively infinity.
Here however, I basically have been asked to show that there is 0 torque for any end effector wrench F. Which is similar to Ax=0
How would I proceed?